• FedPosterman5000 [none/use name]@hexbear.net
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      7
      ·
      5 days ago

      So, legit question, is the fasces completely separate from fascism? I understood from Plutarch that historically lictors would utilize the rods from the fasces for corporals punishment, and the axe of the fasces for capital punishment of those who defied the republic (ie ruling class). I’m not a historian by any means, so I’m sure there’s a ton of nuance I’m missing, but I thought the etymology was indicative of the roots

      • XxFemboy_Stalin_420_69xX [none/use name]@hexbear.net
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        7
        ·
        edit-2
        5 days ago

        good question. i’m no historian either but my understanding is that italian fascists in the 20th century used the fasces (among other roman symbols) to harken back to an imagined glorious past for the italian people and associate themselves with a golden age. i.e., fascism is inspired by rome and by the fasces in particular, but the roman empire itself was not fascist because fascism didn’t exist and could not exist in the ancient world